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Home » Topics » General » Why are there fewer men among 15-49 year olds? (Does the adverse proportion suggest selection bias?)
Re: Why are there fewer men among 15-49 year olds? [message #16029 is a reply to message #15926] Wed, 24 October 2018 10:36 Go to previous message
Liz-DHS
Messages: 1516
Registered: February 2013
Senior Member
Dear User, a response from senior sampler, Dr. Ruilin Ren:
Quote:

Male surveys are usually conducted in a sub-sample of households. the appendix A should provide this information.
I think the best place to start is to look at the sampling section of each final report. There is an Appendix, generally Appendix A which deals with the sample design. Every survey is unique so it is worth looking at this section. After reviewing, if you have additional questions, please feel free to post again. Thank you!

[Updated on: Wed, 24 October 2018 22:03]

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