| Why are there fewer men among 15-49 year olds? [message #15926] |
Sat, 06 October 2018 18:11  |
nibiti
Messages: 20
Registered: April 2018
Location: Göttingen
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Dear all,
I have compiled a DHS dataset of Sub-Saharan African countries to analyze several anthropometric health indicators (birth weight, WAZ, HAZ, adult height). The dataset is a combination of PR, IR, MR and KR. I want to analyze effects of conflict on both men and women.
Now, I noticed that the number of women (age 15-49) in the sample is much larger than for men in this age group.
My concern is, that this reflects a selection bias. For example, it could be possible that there are fewer men in this sample, because men were often not home during the DHS interviews. This would mean that men that were home during the interview could be systematically different from those who were not present during interviews (e.g. because they were not suited for agricultural work).
However, I think that the adverse proportion of women to men could have also been an active decision of USAID.
Maybe you could tell me, if that is the case and where I could find more information on this issue (so that I can cite the information I get)? Are the men in the sample representative for all men in the countries?
Many thanks in advance,
Timo
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